A question for the christian scholars

Published on June 24, 2005 By dharmagrl In Misc

Ok, I already posed this question on another thread, but I want to ask again.

Why, if God is a single entity, does it say at the end of Genesis 1 'let US make them in OUR image'?

Why the plural there?

Thanks in advance for any answers....

Comments (Page 8)

106

messybuu

on Jun 28, 2005

I got answers, but I had further questions.....like if it's the 'royal we' scenario, how come it's not used anywhere else in the bible? I even went to www,torah.org and asked a rabbi....but that ws on saturday, shabot, so I haven't got answer yet.

I'll give what I think is a valid answer: when God says "we" He is talking to Himself (or to the angels, who, like Adam, are sons of God). When he's talking to humans, he says I because he's not including humans when he's talking to Moses or somebody as he did when he was talking either to the other parts of him (i.e. Father, the Word (Son), Holy Spirit, which are mentioned in the OT as well as the NT) or to the sons of God, who were made in God's image.

107

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on Jun 28, 2005

Dharma---I have been a buddhist for 12 years...

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